[ExI] FTL question

[Adrian Tymes]

To the best of my knowledge, it does not.  It is more accurate to say that
it potentially accelerates the speed at which causality can propagate,
along the direction it travels.

For example, let us take points A and B, one light second apart.  A
spaceship with a warp drive starts at A, quickly (for sake of discussion,
close enough to "instantly") comes up to speed, then arrives at B less than
a second later as a direct result.

This does not violate causality.  In the reference frames of both points,
there was a cause (the engine activating) and then there was an effect (the
ship arriving at B), even if B might not receive the light detailing the
cause until after the effect happened.  (Which is to say, causality
propagated faster than light.)


On Tue, Jul 30, 2013 at 4:50 PM, Dan <dan_ust at yahoo.com> wrote:

> Anyone here care to answer? I'll post your reply back to A2. Thanks!
>
>   ----- Forwarded Message -----
>  *From:* Michael DeVault <me at michaeldevault.com>
> *To:* Atlantis II II <atlantis_II at yahoogroups.com>
> *Sent:* Sunday, July 28, 2013 5:10 PM
> *Subject:* [atlantis_II] FTL question
>
>
>  Does anyone know if an Albecurie drive violates causality?
>
>
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