[ExI] Bell's Inequality

Adrian Tymes atymes at gmail.com
Thu Dec 1 08:37:27 UTC 2016


On Wed, Nov 30, 2016 at 9:53 PM, Jason Resch <jasonresch at gmail.com> wrote:
> On Wed, Nov 30, 2016 at 10:48 PM, Adrian Tymes <atymes at gmail.com> wrote:
>> On Wed, Nov 30, 2016 at 7:36 PM, Rafal Smigrodzki
>> <rafal.smigrodzki at gmail.com> wrote:
>> > On Wed, Nov 30, 2016 at 5:56 PM, Adrian Tymes <atymes at gmail.com> wrote:
>> >> But experiments do have only one outcome, as experienced and observed
>> >> by
>> >> the experimenters.  Any alternate worlds are immeasurable and may as
>> >> well
>> >> not exist.
>> >
>> > ### If you were to say that only the observed experimental outcomes
>> > exist,
>> > then you imply there is something qualitatively different between the
>> > part
>> > of the wavefunction we do experience and the parts that we don't.
>>
>> Science is all about observability, measurement, and what actually
>> exists.  If you wish to speculate that something that is never
>> measurable, observable, or otherwise detectable must still exist, you
>> need evidence.
>
> The other universes are detectable and they do effect our universe, e.g.
> interference patterns.

I do not see how interference patterns are necessarily an effect of
other universes.  They are explained well enough by single-world
quantum mechanics.

> Furthermore, you must accept the reality of the wave function (and all its
> branches) in order to explain how quantum computers work.

The wave function works just fine in a single world too.

> The evidence for these other branches includes all the evidence we have for
> quantum mechanics. Indefensible mental gymnastics are required to believe in
> both QM but deny the reality of the wave function and its many histories.

They are only indefensible if you take MWI as a postulate.  If you do
not presuppose MWI, then you might see that things look the same
whether there are multiple worlds or just the one.



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