[ExI] Bell's Inequality

[Stathis Papaioannou]

Stuart wrote:

<But free will is clearly observable to someone exercising it or
deliberately not exercising it. You clearly know when you are watching a
particular television show because you want to as opposed because someone
else has the remote. Likewise an experimenter knows that she chose a
particular polarizer angle because she wanted to as opposed to flipping a
coin or being told to by someone else.

<So whatever free will is, it has to somehow interact with the wave
equation, even in your scenario. So it would seem to reason that free will
is made of the same "substance" as the wave equation itself so math,
information, waves of probability amplitude, what have you. Plus I observe
that it can constrain experimental outcomes and thus think that it can
legitmately constrain scientific theories.

How is the operation of free will different to the operation of any other
physical system? I choose coffee rather than tea because the
coffee-choosing neurons fire, and the coffee decision comes out; my washing
machine chooses the spin cycle rather than the wash cycle because its spin
cycle-choosing relay fires and spin cycle comes out.
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