[ExI] Bell's Inequality

[Adrian Tymes]

On Sun, Jan 1, 2017 at 7:13 PM, Rafal Smigrodzki
<rafal.smigrodzki at gmail.com> wrote:
> Every particle and interaction specified and pre-ordained from beginning to
> end, or maybe to infinity. An infinitude of information that had to exist
> outside of time to order and make all answers "be there all along".

Unless you add back in that free will caveat, which means some
information can come along later.  (People keep insisting that there
are entities in our universe that have "free will" - said entities
including themselves - and while free will is not clearly defined,
apparently one of the properties of free will is that it can be the
original source of certain types of information.  There may be other
original causes too - such as for the fine details of some planet that
no entity with free will has yet traveled to the galaxy of within the
history of our universe - but this means a nonzero amount of
information was generated after our universe began.)

> So what is the physical process which generated that infinite amount of
> information?

We have no data on the universe prior to the Big Bang.  For all we
know, there could have been more prior universes than there are atoms
in our observable universe, giving that much more time for things to
come to be as we see them now.  But such speculation is pointless: we
have no data on where these initial conditions came from, one way or
another.

What you're asking about here is outside the realm of what can be
measured and proven, so it can not be used to prove or disprove
superposition or MWI.