[ExI] 1DIQ: an IQ metaphor to explain superintelligence

Ben Zaiboc ben at zaiboc.net
Sun Nov 2 14:50:46 UTC 2025


On 01/11/2025 23:20, Jason Resch wrote:

 > If you believe it will be good for you, you may desire it. If you 
learn later that it will be bad for you, you may no longer desire it. 
Here, what you desire has a dependency on what you believe.


Discuss that with a cigarette smoker. I think you'll find they disagree.


 > It's to frame the problem: where does morality come from, what is its 
basis, by what method do we determine right or wrong?


Well that's easy, I can tell you. Morality comes from us. We make it up. 
And the methods we use are various.


 >> We always have to make decisions in the /absence/ of full 
information. What we would do if we had 'all the information' is 
irrelevant, if it even means anything.

 > Yes, this is what I've been saying from the beginning. Perfect grasp 
is used only to define the aim of morality, not to serve as a practical 
theory.


We know what the aim of morality is: To distinguish right actions from 
wrong ones. Nothing difficult about that, and no 'perfect grasp' is 
needed to establish it. The difficulty is in deciding what 'right' and 
'wrong' mean. Different people in various different circumstances seem 
to have different opinions.


 > Consider weather prediction. We can't predict with 100% accuracy, nor 
predict arbitrarily far into the future. Yet we can make near term 
predictions with some modicum of accuracy.
This is how moral decisions can (and should) be approached.


Can, yes. Should? Who are you to say? You are now deciding for other 
people. My morality tells me that this is immoral.


 > Please consider what I wrote carefully. It is an example of putting 
into practice a heuristic. And how better heuristics are based on the 
same model and definition of morality as defined in that paper.


You may think so. I don't. That paper is nonsense. As I said, the first 
three statements are flat-out wrong.


 > > Without objective truth, by what measure is any theory in science 
said to be better than any other?


Yes, I've addressed that in another post. I was too hasty in saying "No" 
to the question, mistaking 'objective' for 'absolute'. My mistake.


 > what is the definition of right or wrong, good or bad? Zuboff's paper 
is an example of a theoretical basis on which we can form such 
definitions, and define what we mean by right and wrong, good and bad.


Apart from the fact that Zuboff's paper is based on false premises, and 
therefore worthless, the very question "what is right and what is 
wrong?" can't be given a definitive answer that is true for everyone in 
every circumstance. It's like trying to give a definitive answer to 
"what is the tastiest food?", that applies to everyone in all 
circumstances. You can't solve subjective problems with an objective 
approach.


 > Let us say you have a particular set of rules in your code.


I do.


 > By [what] process do you decide what rules to adopt, or decide to 
adopt one rule vs. another.


There is a heirarchy, built on a principle that I worked out a long time 
ago. I just need to slot a problem into the right level of the 
heirarchy, and the solution is obvious. I've never met a (real) 
situation that it can't handle to my satisfaction (I'm not claiming to 
have the answer to the trolley problem!).


 > My contention is that to even form a moral code, one must hold some 
meta-rule for optimizing what knew [one?] considers to be good while 
minimizing or avoiding bad.


Indeed. And I'd say that the meta-rule is what defines 'good' and 'bad'.


 > And I think if you explored this meta-rule, you would find it is not 
all that different from the position Zuboff reaches in his paper.


On the contrary, it is totally different, and much simpler, than 
Zuboff's nonsense.


 > Ultimately, what is good (for one individual) is what that individual 
would want for themselves if they had a complete knowledge of everything 
involved.


First, No.
Second, this would be reducing morality to what is good for an individual...


 > And then this then extended to define good as a maximization of good 
for all concerned, to achieve the most possible good among all beings 
who have desires, by satisfying (to the maximum possible extent) the 
desires each individual would still hold if they all had a perfect grasp 
of everything. This he refers to as a reconciliation of all systems of 
desire.


... then dragging everyone else into it (Golden Rule, and we know what's 
wrong with that)


I really don't see the point of positing an impossible knowledge then 
using this as the basis of a system of morality (or anything at all). 
Saying "Oh, but it's just theoretical, not real, don't take it too 
literally" is basically the same as saying it's totally useless for any 
practical purpose.

A 'reconciliation of all systems of desire' is equivalent to 'a 
reconciliation of all systems of taste'.

That's apart from the fact that the whole paper is nonsense.


 >> It's about having a choice. If it were possible to have 'perfect 
knowledge', there would be no morality, no choice.

 > I'm not sure that follows. Even with perfect knowledge, you could 
still choose whether or not to act in accordance with morally best action.


That's true. People can choose to be evil. Does anyone actually do that? 
We'd probably class it as mental illness.


I don't undertand why you are taking Zuboff's paper seriously. Do you 
take his first three statements in the paper's abstract at face value?:

1) "If I desire to drink some stuff thinking it is hot chocolate when 
actually it is hot mud, my desire is not a real one - it’s mistaken or 
only apparent."

(misconstruing the desire to drink hot chocolate as a desire to drink 
whatever is in the cup. If that were the case, he'd drink the mud)


2) "This example illustrates how a desire must always depend on a belief 
about its object, a belief about what it is and what it’s like."

(false assumption that if any desire is dependent on a belief (something 
that I'd dispute, but it needs closer examination), all desires must 
always be dependent on beliefs. Saying "This example illustrates..." is 
deflecting the reader from the fact that he's making an assumption and 
failing to show why it should be true)


3) "But beliefs are correctable, so desires are correctable"

( I don't know why he uses the term 'correctable', which implies 
wrongness, but this statement just compounds the above errors and adds 
one more: False conclusion that if a belief can change, this means that 
a desire can change)


I can understand someone saying that beliefs are sometimes based on 
desires (I'm sure this is often the case), but not the reverse. That's 
just daft. Desires are emotional, derived from feedback on bodily 
states, and elaborated by memories and imagination. Beliefs about 
various things can certainly contribute to the process, but you can't 
reasonably claim that (all) desires are a result of (only) beliefs.

At the best, Zuboff is guilty of grossly oversimplifying and 
misattributing things. At the worst, well, I'd be committing the 
Internet Sin of Ad-Hominem Attack to say anything more, and that goes 
against my moral code.

-- 
Ben




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