[ExI] Sigh

BillK pharos at gmail.com
Fri Jul 2 06:58:11 UTC 2010


On 7/2/10, Damien Broderick wrote:
> > doesn't the government
> > always take a declared percentage *off the top*--that is, from the
> > amount paid by customers?
> >
>
>  My wife the US tax lawyer assures me that this is correct.
>
>

>From Casino taxation in the United States
by John E. Anderson | June, 2005 |
<http://findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_hb3356/is_2_58/ai_n29194031/pg_3/>

All states in the U.S. that permit commercial casinos impose some form
of wagering tax. The precise definition of the tax base varies from
state to state, but the essential tax base in all cases is a form of
adjusted gross receipts (AGR), or gross gambling receipts minus payout
for prizes.
(There are other taxes as well).
-------------------------------


This is what I would expect as it is problematic to tax money the
casinos don't have.

And this would in theory allow for psi aided gamblers to make big
profits and reduce the government tax take. However, practical
considerations like how the casinos treat people who win over the odds
would quickly put a stop to any excessive wins.


BillK



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