[ExI] Bell's Inequality
atymes at gmail.com
Sat Dec 31 04:44:03 UTC 2016
On Fri, Dec 30, 2016 at 7:51 PM, Rafal Smigrodzki
<rafal.smigrodzki at gmail.com> wrote:
> On Fri, Dec 30, 2016 at 2:47 PM, Adrian Tymes <atymes at gmail.com> wrote:
>> On Thu, Dec 29, 2016 at 9:52 PM, Rafal Smigrodzki
>> <rafal.smigrodzki at gmail.com> wrote:
>> > On Sun, Dec 18, 2016 at 4:33 AM, Adrian Tymes <atymes at gmail.com> wrote:
>> >> > According to the theory, this thing is the wave
>> >> > function, and the resources used are all of the wave functions
>> >> > various
>> >> > superpositions.
>> >> "Assume MWI, therefore MWI." Sorry, that's circular reasoning.
>> > ### We do not assume MWI here
>> "According to the theory" means that the rest of it is true if the
>> theory is true. You then present a case where the theory is
>> true...but it's still qualified with "According to the theory".
> ### I really do not understand what you could possibly mean here.
I mean that you did in fact assume MWI there, and I pointed out how.
>> > If the computational results
>> > depend on the interference between a number of quantum states predicted
>> > by
>> > the wave function, then each of the states exists - or else it would not
>> > be
>> > capable of being causally involved in the generation of computational
>> > results.
>> A thing can have the potential to exist without actually existing.
>> The things that give rise to that potential can exist without the end
>> result coming into existence, and perform the necessary interference
>> themselves, getting rid of that potential through their interactions.
> ### So potentially existing but not really existing things are according to
> you capable of interference with real things?
Not directly. Rather, certain things X can potentially cause other
things Y, such that it is usually said that Y "exists" when it doesn't
yet, but X does exist, X is real, and X can cause interference.
In this case, Y is the states themselves, and X is the conditions that
could lead to each of the multiple states.
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