[ExI] Dark mass = FTL baryons?
avant at sollegro.com
Sun Aug 20 18:21:44 UTC 2017
John Clark wrote:
>You can't go to infinity in all directions, the past is a specific finite
>number, 13.8 billion years, the future is unknown and could well be
>infinite but almost certainly is not equal to the past, it is not 13.8
Well I would say at the scale of about 3 billion lightyears, structures
stop being apparent and the universe becomes of sufficiently homogenous
density for my calculation to be valid. So any radius of the 4-D ball
between 3 billion and 13.8 billion light years would suffice.
>If you include the entire "contents of the 4-D ball" you'd be including
>events outside our past lightcone that can not influence any observation we
>make, so that can't explain the observations we can make of Dark Matter or
Blackhole singularities are outside our light cone as well, hidden behind
event horizons to protect causality, yet they nonetheless influence the
shape of space-time if not outright cause events to happen in their local
vicinity even if we can't see the singularity itself.
I claim the same privilege for superluminal space-noodles of dark matter.
They can gravitationally warp space-time and according to GR, that's just
geometry. To say gravity is subject to causality is like saying an
elephant's trunk causes its ass.
>If your talking about 4-D Spacetime and not just 4-D space you've got to
>use volume formulas appropriate for hyperbolic geometry not Euclidian
The *official* volume element for Minkwoski 4-D spacetime is
dV=c*(dt/gamma)*(gamma*dx)*dy*dz which notice the gammas cancel and you
are left with dV=c*dt*dx*dy*dz. That happens to be identical to the volume
element for Euclidean space if you substitute w=c*t into dV=dx*dy*dz*dw.
So this is an important thing to remember:
The radius is only an invariant in Euclidean space. The spacetime interval
or proper time/distance is an only invariant in Minkowski space-time. But
volume is simultaneously an invariant in both spaces. I used it to bridge
the gap. I stand by my math.
>About 30% of the universe consists of matter which tends to push things
>together, the remaining 70% being Dark Energy which tends to push things
>away. Of that 30% how does your idea differentiate between the 25% that is
>composed of Dark Matter and the 5% that is regular matter?
The dark matter is superluminal relative to our rest frame. The velocity
of normal matter is v < c. The velocity of dark matter is v > c. That is
the biggest difference. My prediction for normal matter content is
1/(6*pi) ~ .0531 , dark matter content is 5/(6*pi)~ .2652, and dark enery
content is 1-(1/pi)~ .6817
A better question would be why dark matter would take a 5:1 ratio with
normal matter. I have not really come up with a good model for why this
would be so but I am working on it.
At the moment, I can come up with no better explanation than that the
constant I derived by dividing the 4-volume of the past lightcone by the
4-volume of a circumscribed 4-d ball came out to 1/(6*pi) and there
happens to be a 6 in the denominator suggesting a total mass proportion of
both types of matter to be 1/pi or approximately .3183.
>A lightcone measures spacetime intervals, so I don't see how that can be
It is irrelevant because I am using the set of all events and not
intervals between individual events. As you mentioned, the hypotenuse of
Euclidean space and space-time interval of Minkowski space-time don't mix.
Fortunately, like I mentioned above, the 4-volume is also invariant and it
is invariant in both geometries.
More information about the extropy-chat