[ExI] Bell's Inequality

[Rafal Smigrodzki]

On Sun, Dec 18, 2016 at 4:33 AM, Adrian Tymes <atymes at gmail.com> wrote:
>
> >
> > Then what resources is the computation using? We can agree we get the
> final
> > answer and it is not by magic, so clearly something real is responsible
> for
> > yielding the answer. According to the theory, this thing is the wave
> > function, and the resources used are all of the wave functions various
> > superpositions.
>
> "Assume MWI, therefore MWI."  Sorry, that's circular reasoning.
>

### We do not assume MWI here, we merely observe that a superposition of
quantum states yields computational results in agreement with quantum
theory, which as you surely know, uses the notion of the wave function to
describe the evolution of quantum systems. If the computational results
depend on the interference between a number of quantum states predicted by
the wave function, then each of the states exists - or else it would not be
capable of being causally involved in the generation of computational
results. These states are not directly observed, as in simple quantum
events, yet they exist. The wave function therefore describes actually
existing entities, not just probabilities of observing entities. Applied to
the universe, the wave function implies MWI.

Is it so difficult to see?

Rafal
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