[ExI] Demonstration of Bell's Inequality

[John Clark]

On Fri, Nov 25, 2016 at 7:56 PM, Stuart LaForge <avant at sollegro.com> wrote:

​> ​
> ultimately both calculations
> ​ ​
> were irrelevant because both calculations disagreed with QM predictions
> and results.
>

​Mine didn't! Using common sense and classical physics as givens I proved
​that it was impossible to violate Bell's inequality, I then showed why
quantum mechanics said it could be violated and explained that the
experiment has been performed and there is no longer any doubt about it,
Bell's inequality IS violated .

>
​> ​
> John on the otherhand seems to believe that he really does choose the
> ​ ​
> angle of the polararizer or direction of magnetic field when conducting an
> ​ ​
> experiment, thus preserving his free will at the cost of realism,
> ​ ​
> local-determinism, or both. John Clark, care to comment?
>

​No, but tell me what on earth "free will" means and I might want to
comment about it.​

​

 J​ohn K Clark
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