[ExI] Free will was: Everett worlds

[Stuart LaForge]

Quoting John Clark:

> On Tue, Aug 18, 2020 at 8:49 AM Stuart LaForge via extropy-chat <
> extropy-chat at lists.extropy.org> wrote:
>
>
>> * > When either you or I measure the spins of an entangled pair
>> of electrons from light years apart, we collapse the wave function by doing
>> so but SOMETHING decides whether we observe the spins as up-down or down-up*
>
>
> If Many Worlds is right then NOTHING decides if John Clark observes spin up
> or spin down because John Clark observes both, the particle John Clark is
> observing splits and so does John Clark.

Yes, John, I get that. What I am asking how does the wave function,  
whether it is a physical wave or an abstract mathematical wave, split  
universes and ensure that both John Clarks see what they are supposed  
to see? Everett's theory simply replaces spooky action at a distance  
with spooky accounting at a distance. Another related question would  
be where does the wave function reside such that it can split  
universes and apportion the results properly to the different universes?

> Schrodinger's wave equation is purely deterministic and so the Multiverse
> must be too. If a particle that is in a spin zero state decays and I
> observed that one of the decay particles is spin up then I must be in a
> universe where it's brother particle is spin down and it makes no
> difference if the particle is a billion light years away because the
> Schrodinger wave equation forbids anything else.

In physics, physical laws in the form of mathematical equations  
usually describe phenomena and predict the outcomes of those  
phenomena. In MWI, the Schrodinger equation does not seem to just  
predict and describe outcomes but actually seems to literally cause  
those outcomes since nothing physical can travel faster than light or  
transcend universes to cause the observed quantum states. How does  
math cause anything except within minds and computers?

>
>> *> you are left with the mystery of unitarity. That is to say, how do
>> different universes containing the same particle in different quantum
>> states always know how to be different from their sister universes if the
>> universes cannot communicate with one another?*
>
>
> The particles are correlated but they are not in communication with one
> another, you can't use quantum entanglement to send messages faster than
> light.

Agreed. The particles are not in communication with each other but  
they do seem to be in communication with Schrodinger's equation or the  
wave function it describes. That is what I mean.


> But if Schrodinger's Equation and thus the entire Multiverse is 100%
> deterministic why involve probability at all? Because each individual version
> of me can only see a very small slice of the multiverse, until I actually
> observe the particle in question I am lacking vital information, I have no
> way of knowing if I am in the universe that has the spin up particle or the
> one that has spin down. Probability is necessary for predicting the
> behavior of something even if it's completely deterministic if you have
> incomplete information about it.

That is fine, but who or what is it that ensures that each possible  
quantum state is manifested completely deterministically in its own  
universe? Determinism is about cause and effect. What is breathing  
fire into the Schrodinger equation such that it can deterministically  
cause different universes to manifest to the observer?

Stuart LaForge