[extropy-chat] invariant be

[Zero Powers]

Hey Spike, happy new year!

It's only a guess, but I'd bet that improper conjugation of the verb
"be" goes all the way back to the first African speakers of English in
the States.  Given that none of the slaves were given English lessons,
and whites' main interest in communicating in slaves was to give
commands, I can't imagine that the slaveholders would have much
interest at all in their slaves properly speaking the King's English. 
As long as he could tote that barge and lift that bale, so what if he
says "I be tired?"

I haven't heard MacNeil's language program, but my money says that the
African American you heard probably was either fairly well educated,
or in the company of persons who didn't improperly conjugate "be."

Zero

On Wed, 5 Jan 2005 22:15:17 -0800, spike <spike66 at comcast.net> wrote:
> 
> 
> In Robin MacNeil's fascinating language program, a
> recording made in the 1930s of African American speech
> was played.  Curiously, the invariant "be" was completely
> missing ("he be going" instead of "he is going).
> 
> I had it in my mind that this signature ebonics
> usage was somehow adapted from Western African
> language groups, but now I am not at all
> sure it isn't a fairly recent American invention,
> perhaps in addition to the double negative often
> heard in such speech.
> 
> Has anyone ideas or speculations on where, when or
> how the invariant be came to be?
> 
> spike
> 
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