[ExI] Is the wave function real?

[John Clark]

On Mon, Dec 5, 2016 at 11:53 PM, Mike Dougherty <msd001 at gmail.com> wrote:

>
>> ​> ​
>> Well yes, change one thing and not the other and 2 identical things are no longer
>> identical. But it works both ways, rearranging the territory would
>> ​ ​
>> not affect the map. It seems to me that they both behave the same way to
>> perturbations, so what's the difference between them?
>
>
> ​> ​
> You've made this point consistently for a long time.  Is this the same
> idea as https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Identity_of_indiscernibles?
>

​Yes.​

​It was Leibniz who first got the idea, and he died in 1716.​

>
​> ​
> I feel like this question is a leading to an answer that nobody ever
> ​ ​
> gives.  What is the answer?
>

​42 is the ultimate answer but I don't know what the ultimate question is.

 John K Clark
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